Reading 2026-04 Test 7

Mês do exame: 2026-04

Recriado a partir de relatos de candidatos — não é material oficial do IELTS. Áudios e textos são recriações para prática.

Reading Passage 1 — Plant Scents

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1–13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

A Everyone is familiar with scented flowers, and many people have heard that floral odors help the plant attract pollinators. This common notion is mostly correct, but it is surprising how little scientific proof of it exists. Of course, not all flowers are pollinated by biological agents – for example, many grasses are wind-pollinated – but the flowers of the grasses may still emit volatiles. In fact, plants emit organic molecules all the time, although they may not be obvious to the human nose. As for flower scents that we can detect with our noses, bouquets that attract moths and butterflies generally smell “sweet,” and those that attract certain flies seem “rotten” to us. B The release of volatiles from vegetative parts of the plant is familiar, although until recently the physiological functions of these chemicals were less clear and had received much less attention from scientists. When the trunk of a pine tree is injured – for example, when a beetle tries to burrow into it – it exudes a very smelly resin. This resin consists mostly of terpenes – hydrocarbons with a backbone of 10, 15 or 20 carbons that may also contain atoms of oxygen. The heavier C20 terpenes, called diterpenes, are glue-like and can cover and immobilize insects as they plug the hole. This defense mechanism is as ancient as it is effective: Many samples of fossilized resin, or amber, contain the remains of insects trapped inside. Many other plants emit volatiles when injured, and in some cases the emitted signal helps defend the plant. For example, (Z)-3-hexenyl acetate, which is known as a “green leaf volatile” because it is emitted by many plants upon injury, deters females of the moth Heliothis virescens from laying eggs on injured tobacco plants. Interestingly, the profile of emitted tobacco volatiles is different at night than during the day, and it is the nocturnal blend, rich in several (Z)-3-hexen-1-ol esters, that is most effective in repelling the night-active H. virescens moths. C Herbivore induced volatiles often serve as indirect defenses. These bulwarks exist in a variety of plant species, including corn, beans, and the model plant species Arabidopsis thaliana. Plants not only emit volatiles acutely, at the site where caterpillars, mites, aphids or similar insects are eating them but also generally from non-damaged parts of the plant. These signals attract a variety of predatory insects that prey on the plant-eaters. For example, some parasitic wasps can detect the volatile signature of a damaged plant and will lay their eggs inside the offending caterpillar; eventually, the wasp eggs hatch, and the emerging larvae feed on the caterpillar from the inside out. The growth of infected caterpillars is retarded considerably, to the benefit of the plant. Similarly, volatiles released by plants in response to herbivore egg laying can attract parasites of the eggs, thereby preventing them from hatching and avoiding the onslaught of hungry herbivores that would have emerged. Plant volatiles can also be used as a kind of currency in some very indirect defensive schemes. In the rainforest understory tree Leonardoxa Africana, ants of the species Petalomyrmex phylax patrol young leaves and attack any herbivorous insects that they encounter. The young leaves emit high levels of the volatile compound methyl salicylate, a compound that the ants use either as a pheromone or as an antiseptic in their nests. It appears that methyl salicylate is both an attractant and a reward offered by the tree to get the ants to perform this valuable deterrent role. D Floral scent has a strong impact on the economic success of many agricultural crops that rely on insect pollinators, including fruit trees such as the bee-pollinated cherry, apple, apricot and peach, as well as vegetables and tropical plants such as papaya. Pollination not only affects crop yield, but also the quality and efficiency of crop production. Many crops require most, if not all, ovules to be fertilized for optimum fruit size and shape. A decrease in fragrance emission reduces the ability of flowers to attract pollinators and results in considerable losses for growers, particularly for introduced species that had a specialized pollinator in their place of origin. This problem has been exacerbated by recent disease epidemics that have killed many honeybees, the major insect pollinators in the United States. E One means by which plant breeders circumvent the pollination problem is by breeding self-compatible, or apomictic, varieties that do not require fertilization. Although this solution is adequate, its drawbacks include near genetic uniformity and consequent susceptibility to pathogens. Some growers have attempted to enhance honeybee foraging by spraying scent compounds on orchard trees, but this approach was costly, had to be repeated, had potentially toxic effects on the soil or local biota, and, in the end, proved to be inefficient. The poor effectiveness of this strategy probably reflects inherent limitations of the artificial, topically applied compounds, which clearly fail to convey the appropriate message to the bees. For example, general spraying of the volatile mixture cannot tell the insects where exactly the blossoms are. Clearly, a more refined strategy is needed. The ability to enhance existing floral scent, which could all be accomplished by genetic engineering, would allow us to manipulate the types of insect pollinators and the frequency of their visits. Moreover, the metabolic engineering of fragrance could increase crop protection against pathogens and pests. F Genetic manipulation of the scent will also benefit the floriculture industry. Ornamentals, including cut flowers, foliage and potted plants, play an important aesthetic role in human life. Unfortunately, traditional breeding has often produced cultivars with improved vase life, shipping characteristics, color and shape while sacrificing desirable perfumes. The loss of scent among ornamentals, which have a worldwide value of more than $30 billion, makes them important targets for the genetic manipulation of flower fragrance. Some work has already begun in this area, as several groups have created petunia and carnation plants that express the linalool synthase gene from C. Breweri. These experiments are still preliminary: For technical reasons, the gene was expressed everywhere in the plant, and although the transgenic plants did create small amounts of linalool, the level was below the threshold of detection for the human nose. Similar experiments in tobacco used genes for other monoterpene synthases, such as the one that produces limonene, but gave similar results. G The next generation of experiments, already in progress, includes sophisticated schemes that target the expression of scent genes specifically to flowers or other organs – such as special glands that can store antimicrobial or herbivore-repellent compounds.

    Questions 1-4

    The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

    1. 1

      Substance released to help plants themselves.

    2. 2

      Scent helps plant’s pollination.

    3. 3

      Practice on genetic experiment of fragrance.

    4. 4

      Plant’s scent attracts herbivore’s enemy for protection.

    Questions 5-8

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet, write TRUE if the statement is true, FALSE if the statement is false, NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

    1. 5

      We have few evidence to support the idea that scent attracts pollinators.

    2. 6

      Heliothis virescens won’t eat those tobacco leaves on which they laid eggs.

    3. 7

      Certain ants are attracted by volatiles to guard plants in rainforest.

    4. 8

      Pollination only affects fruit trees’ production rather than other crop trees.

    Questions 9-13

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

    1. 9

      How do wasps protect plants when they are attracted by scents according to the passage?

      • A. plants induce wasps to prey herbivore.
      • B. wasps lay eggs into caterpillars.
      • C. wasps laid eggs on plants to expel herbivore.
      • D. offending caterpillars and wasp eggs coexist well.
    2. 10

      What reason caused a number of honeybees decline in the United States.

      • A. pollination process
      • B. spread illness
      • C. crop trees are poisonous
      • D. grower’s overlook
    3. 11

      Which of the following drawbacks about artificial fragrance is NOT mentioned in the passage?

      • A. it’s very expensive
      • B. it can’t tell correct information to pollinators.
      • C. it needs massive manual labour
      • D. it poisons local environment
    4. 12

      The number of $30 billion quoted in the passage is to illustrate the fact that:

      • A. favorable perfumes are made from ornamental flowers.
      • B. traditional floriculture industry needs reform.
      • C. genetic operation on scent can make a vast profit.
      • D. Scent plays a significant role in Ornamental industry.
    5. 13

      What is weakness of genetic experiments on fragrance?

      • A. Linalool level is too low to be smelt by nose
      • B. no progress made in linalool emission.
      • C. experiment on tobacco has a better result
      • D. transgenic plants produce intense scent

    Reading Passage 2 — Urban Regeneration: an award-winning redevelopment project in Berlin

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14–26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

    A Just over a kilometer south of Berlin’s Potsdamer Platz, near the left bank of the Landwehr Canal, an extensive, triangular-shaped area of waste ground once separated the neighbourhoods of Kreuzberg to the east and Schöneberg to the west. Known as Gleisdreieck, meaning ‘triangle of rails’, it was formed by the intersection of different railway lines built in the mid-nineteenth century that entered Berlin from the south. Tracks, sheds and warehouses belonging to three old railway stations – Dresdner Bahnhof (1875-1882), Potsdamer Bahnhof (1838-1944) and Anhalter Bahnhof (1839-1952) – are situated on a raised area some twenty hectares in size, at a height of four metres above the surrounding ground level. B As the railway infrastructure gradually ceased to be used, the whole area of Gleisdreieck became increasingly run down and abandoned, to the point of being used as a rubbish tip after 1945. Meanwhile, vegetation took over, turning it into a surprising, natural haven in the middle of built-up areas. The closeness of the wall which divided the city of Berlin between 1961 and 1990 also contributed to the fact that Gleisdreieck was for decades clearly identified as no-man’s-land. Only a station of the same name in Berlin’s underground railway system testified to its existence. Shortly before the fall of the Berlin Wall, however, the German Museum of Technology was established there, attracting large numbers of visitors and giving visibility to the site. More importantly, the unification of the formerly divided city gave the zone more centrality, at which point it became imperative to identify a purpose for it. C After 2006, the State of Berlin put forward the proposal of converting Gleisdreieck into a large urban park that would integrate the different urban zones which converged there. The decades-long isolation of the site, which had formerly presented a problem, now represented an opportunity for joining the southern area of Potsdamer Platz with Kreuzberg and Schöneberg. The creation of the park would trigger one of the biggest urban expansions inside Berlin, all within a framework of multiple uses and social characteristics. It was necessary to stimulate the development of sixteen new hectares of local amenities that would be capable of integrating different generations and social groups in a sustainable way, and in harmony with nature. Following intense discussion with local proprietors and residents, the need to reconcile these goals with the conservation of railway heritage also emerged. D Once the area had been subjected to a process of undergrowth clearance and decontamination, it was then organized around a combination of existing and added elements. The project as a whole was planned around a large central meadow, intersected from east to west by a concrete footpath, and from north to south by a pair of railway lines. Once a month, a train slowly travels along these lines from its parking shed to the German Museum of Technology. The concrete footpath, which is a continuation of one of the main Kreuzberg boulevards, starts in the east, bridges the four-metre difference in ground level by means of a stairway, and suddenly ends in the west on reaching the underground lines. E North of the meadow, there is a large concrete slab with rounded edges. Being south-facing, this functions as a big sunny terrace, full of benches complete with footrests. In the south, the meadow overlooks Yorckstrasse, an underpass crossed by more than fifteen former railway bridges. To the east of the meadow there is quite a dense forest of pre-existing maples, oaks and birches, as well as newly planted trees of the same species. In this area, a couple of large metal frames each hold two swings. The edges of the park are finished with a collection of distinctive, functional spaces, for example a nursery, sports fields, concave surfaces for skateboards, stages for dancing, community gardens, or simply areas covered in gravel obtained from the site itself. F Although initially the regeneration of Gleisdreieck Park was the subject of disagreement between those who were in favour of safeguarding the railway heritage and those who wanted to regenerate the adjacent neighbourhoods, it was opened to the public in September 2011. The heart of Berlin now has a new green lung, in which the atmosphere of various small, very different corners fits neatly into a large-scale, wide-ranging and robust general order. This has been possible precisely because the intervention was not limited to conserving industrial remains in order to promote railway history. And as a reminder of the six decades of human absence, during which nature took over, the park has been able to conserve to some extent the spirit of the non-place that preceded it.

      Questions 14–19

      Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A–F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i–viii, in boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet.

      List of Headings Objectives of the regeneration project i. Architectural details of the station buildings ii. Features and facilities of the completed development iii. The remains of a railway system iv. A positive evaluation of the finished project v. A way of controlling development costs vi. Ways of crossing the site vii. Reasons why the area had become neglected viii.
      1. 14

        Paragraph A

      2. 15

        Paragraph B

      3. 16

        Paragraph C

      4. 17

        Paragraph D

      5. 18

        Paragraph E

      6. 19

        Paragraph F

      Questions 20–21

      Choose TWO letters, A–E. Write the correct letters in boxes 20 and 21 on your answer sheet. Which TWO reasons are given for the choice of Gleisdreieck as a site for a park?

      A. It was a habitat for some rare wildlife species. B. It contained a particular tourist attraction. C. It lay at the heart of the reunited city. D. It was served by a major rail network. E. It contained buildings which could be easily converted.
      1. 20

        Which TWO reasons are given for the choice of Gleisdreieck as a site for a park?

        • A. It was a habitat for some rare wildlife species.
        • B. It contained a particular tourist attraction.
        • C. It lay at the heart of the reunited city.
        • D. It was served by a major rail network.
        • E. It contained buildings which could be easily converted.

      Questions 22–23

      The list below identifies some of the possible aims of urban redevelopment projects. Which TWO things did the State of Berlin hope to achieve with the Gleisdreieck development?

      A. to bring people of different ages together B. to encourage tourism C. to improve transport links D. to preserve industrial remains E. to generate income for the city
      1. 22

        Which TWO things did the State of Berlin hope to achieve with the Gleisdreieck development?

        • A. to bring people of different ages together
        • B. to encourage tourism
        • C. to improve transport links
        • D. to preserve industrial remains
        • E. to generate income for the city

      Questions 24–26

      Complete the summary below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 24–26 on your answer sheet.

      In the middle of the new park is a 24 _______, where there is a path for pedestrians and two railway lines. A slow train uses these lines to make a regular journey between its base and a 25 _______. Benches have been provided on the north side, so that people can relax and enjoy the sunshine, and to the east is an area with mature trees of various kinds, as well as sets of swings. A range of sports and leisure areas are situated around the 26 _______ of the site.
      1. 24

        In the middle of the new park is a 24 _______, where there is a path for pedestrians and two railway lines.

      2. 25

        A slow train uses these lines to make a regular journey between its base and a 25 _______.

      3. 26

        A range of sports and leisure areas are situated around the 26 _______ of the site.

      Reading Passage 3 — Saving the Skink

      You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27–40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

      A New Zealand's reptiles come in three forms: the tuatara, the geckos and the skinks. With their gleaming scales, long bodies and often surprisingly short limbs, skinks are instantly recognisable. There are more than 90 species, half of which still await formal description. Identification depends on where specimens are found, and such minutiae as the number of scales on their toes. Two of the largest species of skink – the grand and the Otago – are found only in Otago, in New Zealand's South Island. Skinks, being reptiles, need to regulate their temperature, and lie on sunny rocks to absorb heat. However, the grand and Otago are the only kinds that do not hibernate through winter; when snow can fall even in summer in Otago, there is no point in them lying dormant for extended periods. Like all other New Zealand reptiles except tuatara and the egg-laying Suter's skink, they give birth to tiny baby lizards. Today, the Otago and grand skinks are lucky to reach five years of age in the wild, although in zoos or research centres they can live beyond thirty. B Unfortunately, extinction may loom for these reptiles. With any decline in New Zealand fauna, predation is always suspected, so the efforts of the Department of Conservation (DOC) have focused on controlling specific pests. An example was a six-year project to control the feral cats on the Otago Skink Reserve, launched in the 1990s. Despite the capture of hundreds of cats, skinks showed no signs of recovery; indeed, there were further declines. The trapping programme also revealed rats and hedgehogs to be predators. C Parasite infections are also thought to be on the rise. Although no direct health implications have been detected the trend is a concern, as it may signal a subtle deterioration in the skinks' living environment. Infection with mites is suspected of inhibiting reproduction among captive animals. D Another potential threat is habitat loss. Eight hundred years ago, Otago was covered in forest. However, extensive burning produced wide open tussock country. The skinks' response to this change isn't known, nor what their habitat was in the earlier environment, with its predominance of shrubs and trees. Furthermore, recent intensive farming has led to poor soil. Even if we had the answer to the eradication of predators, we haven't a clue to the habitat we should be recreating for the skinks, or if where they persist is best for conservation. E It is also puzzling that grands and Otagos are disappearing more rapidly than other species in the same region. The explanation likely lies in their delayed sexual maturity. Taking five years before you can breed is a handicap, since there is little likelihood of surviving that long. If survivors have only two offspring annually, they do little to remedy the situation. The commoner skinks mature earlier and produce more offspring, thereby doing more to counter predator pressure. Not that there is room for complacency concerning these species. As more is learned about the size of skink populations, it becomes clear that even common species may be facing a doubtful future. F So far, DOC's efforts to eliminate specific predators have not resulted in a recovery of skink numbers. The prediction that less than six years is all the Otagos and grands have left is supported by data from surveys conducted outside the protected area between 1984 and 2002. These show that more than 50 per cent of sub-populations of both skinks have died out over the past years. Populations in other regions are believed to be smaller, although access issues on some properties limit knowledge. No more than five years remain in which to turn things around – a close call considering it will be at least three before detectable response in the populations can be expected owing to their low breeding rate. G DOC's recovery-programme team has recently embarked upon an experiment to extend nearly two kilometres of mammal-proof fencing around a population of Otagos and grands in the Macraes Flat reserve. Choosing a site was difficult, as with a limited budget and the high cost of the fencing it had to be small. It also had to include vacant space and resources for a growing population. An added complication was that grands and Otagos have subtly different environmental preferences, both of which need catering for. H Because of the danger of imminent extinction, the team has also had to develop emergency captive-management techniques. Specially permitted breeders, who have had some success in breeding the Otago in captivity, are now developing techniques to breed grands. Captive management, however, is a last resort. The priority is to manage and protect skinks in the wild. I Getting the public to understand the plight of these creatures is essential. Without public support, their chances are slim. Conservation is as much driven by public opinion as it is by political decisions. In New Zealand, the situation is more pressing than just about anywhere else on the planet because many of its native birds and lizards have simply not evolved to defend themselves against species introduced in the last few hundred years. In the once-isolated islands that form New Zealand, ecosystem collapse didn't happen 5000 years ago or even 500 years ago; it's happening now. J Fortunately, DOC no longer faces these problems alone. The challenge has been taken up by a group of conservationists representing business, science and agriculture. Central Otago Ecological Trust (COET) aims to establish a refuge for the reintroduction of native species. It has identified suitable habitat and, with the generous support of a local farmer with grazing land there, has begun the construction of a mammal-proof fence to protect a 24-hectare area. The recovery programme and COET provide hope that skinks might once again flourish.

        Questions 27-31

        Complete the summary using the list of words, A-K, below.

        A. eggs B. location C. hooded eyes D. the wild E. body heat F. winter sleep G. captivity H. live young I. digestive process J. small legs K. warmer areas Characteristics of New Zealand skinks There are three kinds of reptiles in New Zealand: the tuatara, the gecko and the skink. Skinks are easily distinguished from these other natives by their shiny scale and 27…… In common with other reptiles, the grand and Otago species of skink have cold blood and therefore 28…… must be externally controlled. They are unique in that they do not require a long 29…… Many species are yet to be identified, and identification depends primarily on their 30...…… and extremely small physical differences. In 31…… , skinks may potentially live for about 30 years.
        1. 27

          Skinks are easily distinguished from these other natives by their shiny scale and 27……

        2. 28

          In common with other reptiles, the grand and Otago species of skink have cold blood and therefore 28…… must be externally controlled.

        3. 29

          They are unique in that they do not require a long 29……

        4. 30

          Many species are yet to be identified, and identification depends primarily on their 30...…… and extremely small physical differences.

        5. 31

          In 31…… , skinks may potentially live for about 30 years.

        Questions 32-36

        Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet write YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer, NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer, NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.

        1. 32

          The DOC project to remove feral cats helped stop the decline in Otago skink numbers.

        2. 33

          Parasite infections are having a serious effect on the physical condition of wild skinks.

        3. 34

          The best possible habitat for the conservation of skinks is unknown.

        4. 35

          It is possible that skinks used to have larger numbers of young than they do now.

        5. 36

          The survival of the common species of skink may soon be at risk.

        Questions 37-40

        Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

        1. 37

          According to the sixth paragraph, what is being said about the future of the grand and Otago skinks?

          • A. More data is necessary in order for DOC to target the right areas.
          • B. DOC is uncertain how long a new strategy will take to be effective.
          • C. There is a considerable risk that DOC will not succeed in saving them.
          • D. The first step in DOC's strategy is to identify their main predator.
        2. 38

          According to the writer, a problem with the DOC's fencing project was that

          • A. the fence needed to surround various kinds of habitat.
          • B. the fence was not the preferred choice of some conservationists.
          • C. the fence had to be constructed near a heavily populated urban area.
          • D. there was no way of knowing how many skinks were inside the fence.
        3. 39

          The writer uses the phrase 'a last resort' in the eighth paragraph in order to

          • A. introduce a recent alternative approach to skink conservation.
          • B. question whether captive breeding has worked in the past.
          • C. imply that skinks are unlikely to reproduce outside their usual habitat.
          • D. express a preference for conserving skinks in their natural environment.
        4. 40

          What is the writer doing in the final paragraph?

          • A. referring to obstacles in the way of skink conservation
          • B. appealing to landowners to donate land for conservation purposes
          • C. describing a conservation scheme that is being set up on farmland
          • D. showing how commercial profit can be made from ecological ventures
        Mostrar gabarito

        Gabarito

        1. 1. B

          Paragraph B explains that when a pine tree is injured, it releases resin (a substance) to defend itself, showing plants release substances to help themselves.

        2. 2. A

          Paragraph A states that floral odors help plants attract pollinators, directly linking scent with pollination.

        3. 3. F

          Paragraph F describes genetic experiments where genes for scent were introduced into plants like petunia and carnation, showing practice in genetic fragrance experiments.

        4. 4. C

          Paragraph C says plants emit volatiles that attract predatory insects, such as parasitic wasps, which attack herbivores, protecting the plant.

        5. 5. TRUE

          The passage says it is 'surprising how little scientific proof' exists that floral odors attract pollinators, so there is little evidence.

        6. 6. NOT GIVEN

          The passage mentions that volatiles deter moths from laying eggs but does not say whether the moths eat the leaves after laying eggs, so it is not given.

        7. 7. TRUE

          Paragraph C describes how certain ants are attracted by plant volatiles (like methyl salicylate) to guard rainforest plants, confirming this is true.

        8. 8. FALSE

          Paragraph D mentions that pollination affects not only fruit trees but also vegetables and tropical plants, so it is false that only fruit trees are affected.

        9. 9. B

          Option B is correct because the passage says wasps lay their eggs inside caterpillars, which then get eaten from the inside. Option A is tempting but less specific; the wasps do more than just prey—they lay eggs inside the herbivore.

        10. 10. B

          Paragraph D explains that recent disease epidemics have killed many honeybees, so the spread of illness is the reason for their decline.

        11. 11. C

          Option C (needs massive manual labour) is not mentioned; the passage lists cost, inefficiency, and toxicity, but not manual labour.

        12. 12. D

          Option D is correct because the passage says ornamentals have a worldwide value of more than $30 billion, showing scent is important in the ornamental industry.

        13. 13. A

          Option A is correct because the passage says the level of linalool produced was below the threshold of detection for the human nose, meaning it was too low to be smelt.

        14. 14. iv

          Paragraph A is best summarized by iv, as it introduces the topic of plant scents and their role in attracting pollinators.

        15. 15. viii

          Paragraph B is best summarized by viii, as it discusses plant volatiles and their defensive functions.

        16. 16. i

          Paragraph C is best summarized by i, as it explains how plant scents attract predators of herbivores for protection.

        17. 17. vii

          Paragraph D is best summarized by vii, as it discusses the economic importance of floral scent for crop pollination.

        18. 18. iii

          Paragraph E is best summarized by iii, as it covers attempts to solve pollination problems and their drawbacks.

        19. 19. v

          Paragraph F is best summarized by v, as it discusses genetic manipulation of scent in ornamental plants.

        20. 20. B / C

          Option B is correct because the German Museum of Technology is a tourist attraction there, and C is correct because after unification, the area became central in the city.

        21. 22. A / D

          Option A is correct because the passage says the park aimed to integrate different generations and social groups, and D is correct because there was a need to reconcile development with conservation of railway heritage.

        22. 24. meadow

          The answer is 'meadow' because the passage describes a large central meadow in the middle of the park with a path and railway lines.

        23. 25. museum

          The answer is 'museum' because the train travels between its base and the German Museum of Technology.

        24. 26. edges

          The answer is 'edges' because the passage says sports and leisure areas are situated around the edges of the site.

        25. 27. J

          The answer is J because the passage says skinks are instantly recognisable by their shiny scales and long bodies.

        26. 28. E

          The answer is E because the passage says skinks need to regulate their temperature, so it must be externally controlled.

        27. 29. F

          The answer is F because the passage says grand and Otago skinks do not hibernate, so they do not require a long dormant period.

        28. 30. B

          The answer is B because identification depends on where specimens are found and small physical differences.

        29. 31. G

          The answer is G because the passage says in zoos or research centres, skinks can live beyond thirty years.

        30. 32. NO

          The answer is NO because the passage says that despite trapping cats, skink numbers did not recover and even declined further.

        31. 33. NOT GIVEN

          The answer is NOT GIVEN because the passage says parasite infections are a concern but does not state they have a serious effect on wild skinks' physical condition.

        32. 34. YES

          The answer is YES because the passage says we do not know what habitat is best for skink conservation.

        33. 35. NOT GIVEN

          The answer is NOT GIVEN because the passage does not mention whether skinks used to have more young in the past.

        34. 36. YES

          The answer is YES because the passage says even common species may be facing a doubtful future.

        35. 37. C

          Option C is correct because the passage says there is a risk that DOC will not succeed in saving the skinks, as more than 50% of sub-populations have died out.

        36. 38. A

          Option A is correct because the passage says the fence had to include different environmental preferences for both skink species.

        37. 39. D

          Option D is correct because the passage says captive management is a last resort, showing a preference for conserving skinks in the wild.

        38. 40. C

          Option C is correct because the final paragraph describes a conservation scheme being set up on farmland with a mammal-proof fence.

        Reading 2026-04 Test 7 — IELTS Reading Actual Test with Answers | IELTS Actual Tests